They are different again. I imagine that the land is in some sense public, because there will often be adjacent play areas and open ground for the use of the public. However, such footpaths are not part of any highway, and hence are not governed by the highway law that keeps footways for the exclusive (at least in theory) use of pedestrians. Generally, council byelaws and the like will govern the use of paths in town, away from the road. Typically, councils make byelaws that exclude bikes.basingstoke123 wrote: 11 Mar 2024, 7:15pmI was also thinking of footpaths that are separated from the highway, for example, running through as housing estate.
That's why you'll often see a passage between two houses with a "No Cycling" sign. It's running away from a footway where cycling wasn't allowed in the first place. So why a sign on the passage and, more to the point, no sign on the path alongside the road? Because the latter is covered by a generic law applying to all footways (barring various exceptions such as shared use), whereas the former is governed by a specific byelaw for that path, or a group of paths in which that is included.
And cycling on paths that aren't covered by any of these is a trespass against the landowner. That includes on public footpaths, because the right of way is only for pedestrians, and hence doesn't cover you as a cyclist.